srikrishnajay asked:



The us with the term has changed and can be of any race blackafrican descent whitecaucasian asian andor amerindiannative american.


Hispanic

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25 Comments on “Do Indians Look “Hispanic” or Do “Hispanics” Look Indian?”

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  1. Prudence801 says:

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    Unless you’re talking about myths in the oral legendary sense, honestly I think there are more cover ups than myths concerning archeology in the western hemisphere.

  2. Prudence801 says:

    Create a video blog

    Actually I have read many things regarding archeology in the americas and arguments against it as well.

  3. srikrishnajay says:

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    Have you not ever read about Native Americans and Archaeological Myths?

    Stay tune, I will upload a video about this subject..

  4. Prudence801 says:

    Hispanic

    Archeological Myths?

  5. srikrishnajay says:

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    Well you are one of many people that contradicts the “accepted theory”of the Bering Straight that claims that we The Original Inhabitants of the “western hemisphere” came from siberia some 30.000 years ago and that we populated “America” [North and South]

    •I think the theory claimed that we were 1 people.

    I think people are just full of it, and all these archaeological Myths are crumbling as well as the the idiotic theories with time.

    ♦Time devours everything!!!

  6. srikrishnajay says:

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    Yes, I agree that there is no “Black”. nor their is “White”.

    The tennishoes I’m wearing right now are white and they are a little bit dirty and my shoes still are whiter than any Caucasian or “White” person. :o )

    So no, people are neihter “White or Black”

  7. srikrishnajay says:

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    I thought I posted a response to a similar comment, but here it is againg.

    •While it is true that WE the Original Inhabitants of the “western hemisphere” aren’t Indians. Same goes for the people of India.

    The official name of “India” is ♦Bharat Varsha♦ sometimes just refered as Bharat.

    The name India was coined by Europeans and it became popularized in the XIV century. They called Indias or Indies to the South East Asian territories/countries.

  8. Prudence801 says:

    Create a video blog…instantly.

    Well “Indians” are from India theres your FIRST misunderstanding right there…And nobody on this earth is “Black” neither.. The oldest brazilian skulls were pronounced “negroid” as well I can give you the site if we choose to entertain doubt. Nor was the “indian” racially the same from canada to south america as stated in this video. I think a similar case can be made for some black brazillians as the one made in this video.

  9. fragolegirl2002 says:

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    what about galicia? was that hispania or lusitania? they say galicians speak same language as portugal galician & portugues same language same people I think

  10. mazurkaawic says:

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    Argentina isn’t totally white (European), go the the north like Salta they speak Amerindian languages, the Europeans are concentrated in Buenos Aires, and in the neighboring country of Uruguay which has no Indians at all.

  11. srikrishnajay says:

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    ♦Race has been used to justify war, slavery, genocide, and human inhumanity.

    For the past two centuries, people have tried to prove that race makes humans biologgically different.

    But scientificaly, race is only skin deep. Human DNA proves that we are 99.9% the same. So while skin collor differ, we are still one race-the human race.

  12. srikrishnajay says:

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    I meant the Census of 2010*

  13. srikrishnajay says:

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    In the Census of 2012 the government wants to know what the racial break down of the population is.

    …ofcourse that wouldn’t be an issue if we are all treated equal.

    I agree that they are no other races, is humand kind that creates this ideas.

  14. srikrishnajay says:

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    There is nothing wrong with the term Hispanic, as long is use in the proper way, and not when it is impossed on Indigenous people of the “western hemisphere”

  15. bryeinsteinmc2 says:

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    There are not different races!
    In your video you keep mentioning that word alot. A more proper word would be ethnicity.
    A recent study on humans has shown that we humans do not divide into races.
    Witherspoon et al. (2007) have shown that even when accurate classification of human populations is achieved, often individuals classified into different groups are more genetically similar to each other than to members of their own group.

  16. bryeinsteinmc2 says:

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    This seems to be due to the fact that multi-locus clustering does not take into account the genetic similarities between individuals, and only uses population level traits for comparison. Witherspoon et al. conclude that accurate classification of individuals drawn from a continuously varying human population may be impossible. Compared with other species the amount of genetic diversity among humans is relatively small.

  17. bryeinsteinmc2 says:

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    For example two random chimpanzee are expected to differ by about 1 in 500 DNA base pairs, equivalent to double the diversity amongst humans. This may indicate that chimpanzees have existed as a species much longer than humans.

  18. bryeinsteinmc2 says:

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    Witherspoon DJ, Wooding S, Rogers AR, Marchani EE, Watkins WS, Batzer MA, Jorde LB. (2007) Genetic similarities within and between human populations. Genetics. 176(1):351-9.

  19. MissieV1 says:

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    Ahhh, en cuanto a la musica espanola: tiene muchisima mas influencia gitana que arabe.
    Has estado alguna vez en Espana ???

  20. MissieV1 says:

    Kansieo.com

    Exacto. No es disgusto, es solo que no es verdad. Los arabes han influido en Espana culturalemente, no racialamente.
    En cuanto los vocablos de origen arabe, si, hay muchos, como en el ingles la mayoria de las palabras de mas de seis silabas derivan del latin y eso no convierte a los ingleses en latinos, no ?.
    Insisto, si vas a hablar de la historia de Espana, hazlo desde el conocimiento.
    Por cierto, cual es tu primera lengua, el Nahuatl o el ingles ?

  21. MsXanadu1 says:

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    No se trata de disgusto, se trata de RIGOR HISTORICO.
    UNa aclaracion:el termino musulman hace alusion a una RELIGION no a una raza. Segundo,los arabes NO son negros,son SEMITAS.Por curiosidad,alguna vez has visto una foto del rey Hussein de Jordania o de su esposa la Reina Noor ?.Te recomiendo que las busques y te enteres de cuan ” negro era el y de cuan ” negra” es ella”.Ambos arabes y musulmanes.
    Los arabes nos dejaron bellas mezquitas y unos miles de vocablos pero no hay que inventar mas.

  22. srikrishnajay says:

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    No reniegues de tus influencias Arabes y Africanas.

    Sino dime porque decis fraces celebres como:

    • “No hay moros en la costa”
    •Hojala! Palabra adoptada al castellano de Origen Arabe. Alla’ – Quiera “Dios”

    La mayoria de muchas de las palabras son de Origen Arabe… Algebra!
    Deberian de sentirse agradecidos con los Arabes que le trajeron muchas cosas buenas del Oriente.
    Inclusive mucha de su Musica esta influenciado por los Arabes.
    ♦No veo porque les pueda disgustar.

  23. MissieV1 says:

    Create a video blog…instantly.

    Este hito serviría para marcar el momento de fundación del Reino de Asturias y dar inicio al período conocido como la RECONQUISTA, entendido como el restablecimiento del poderío cristiano en la península Ibérica.
    Solo pido que si se va a hablar de la historia de Espana se haga desde el conocimiento

  24. MissieV1 says:

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    En el año 718 (7años despues de la invacion) en la actual Asturias un noble llamado Pelayo se sublevó contra los musulmanes. La sublevación fracasa y es detenido. Hacia el 722 vuelve a intentarlo y tiene lugar lo que la historiografía denominó la batalla de Covadonga, donde Pelayo y un grupo de astures vencieron a una expedición de castigo musulmana.

  25. MissieV1 says:

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    Los ” moros ” estuvieron 800 anios en Espana, pero nunca la dominaron totalmente. Una prueba de ello es que no lograron imponer ni su lengua ni su religion. Y ni aun en su epoca de esplendor tuvieron dominio total sobre el pais.

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